(About) the Divine Plan/Fate & Free Will (see also Prayer and Faith)
Verse Observations: Dt 32:34-35, 39, I Chr 14:14, II Chr 21:16, 30:12, Jb 23:14, Jer 24:7, Hg 1:14, Zec 12:10, Mt 20:23, Jn 7:30, 8:20, 12:39-40, Acts 17:26, Eph 3:9, 10, 11, 3-6, Rv 13:8, 10
*human effect on the divine plan - Prv 24:17-18
*the divine plan in potentiality - Jer 36:3, 7:27, 16, 11:14, 14:11, Ezk 12:3, Jl 2:14, Am 5:15
*the divine plan & prayer - Mt 24:20, Mk 13:18, 14:35-36
*God preparing evil - Zech 11:16-17 (see also Good & Evil/Pain & Suffering)
*good & evil under God - Jb 12:16, Prv 15:3, Eccl 7:14 (see also Good & Evil/Pain & Suffering)
*verses that point indirectly to fate - Ezk 30:12
*how God runs the show - Mt 12:27, Lk 11:48
*God's ideal will & manifested will - Lk 7:30
*God reversing the way of the world - I Cor 1:20-21, 24
If it is God’s desire that none should perish (Ezk 18:23, II Pt 3:9), and his will is always fulfilled, why do many perish? (Mt 7:13)
What does it mean that the Holy Spirit would be with John the Baptist from the womb? Would it even matter, since he could "do nothing either good or bad"? (Rom 9:11)
Why does God not promise, but says “perhaps”? (Zeph 2:3)
Why would God not want the disciples to understand what Jesus meant when he said he would be delivered into the hand of men? Again, I think this is too “invasive”. This is all especially strange given that Jesus said, “Let these words sink into your ears.” (Lk 9:44-45)
In the day of prosperity be joyful, and in the day of adversity consider: God has made the one as well as the other, so that man may not find out anything that will be after him. (Eccl 7:14)
Don't get the connection. (a question about the hiddenness of the divine plan)
Why does God withhold information from us? For example, why does he not let us know when we're going to die, or when others are going to die?
Jdgs 2:20-22 Why should he test them, seeing that they had already proven themselves sinful?
Why didn't God tell Joshua before he killed the 36 men that there were devoted things among them? Why does he wait around until people are killed? (Jos 7:13)
What did God mean that he was planning on establishing Saul's throne for all time? (I Sm 13:13) No he wasn't. First, that's not what he did, and God's divine plan was ordained before time began and second, it would falsify the prophecy of the Messiah coming from the tribe of Judah. (Gn 49:10)
Mk 6:48 What does it mean "he meant to pass by them"? If God always has his way, why would he not have been able to pass by them? And why would the Son's will be different from the Father's? And if the Son wanted them to go to Bethsaida, why did the Father send them to Gennesaret? (Mk 6:45, 53 & ESV note on v 53 -- "The northeasterly wind had caused the ship to drift southwestward, bringing them to Gennesaret instead of their intended destination of Bethsaida.")
I think it's a really weird story about king Joash of Israel and Elisha and the arrows. How could God have managed the world's affairs according to the number of times a man struck the ground with arrows? How could God have used something so arbitrary to overthrow a whole kingdom? Wouldn't Syria's doom be due to their own goodness or evil? And I don't think that God could have totally left such a big decision in the hands of a mere mortal. Doesn't God see to it that all things follow his own will? So then why even give Joash a “chance” to vanquish his enemy if it wasn't really an opportunity to make an actual free-will decision? (That is, God already decided that Syria would be defeated, then caused Joash to choose according to his (God’s) own will, while making it seem that Joash had a say in the matter.) How could Elisha have gotten mad at Joash for not beating the ground more times if he really had no say in the matter, but was only working out the will of God? How could he have been blamed for not beating the ground 5 or 6 times if it was not the Lord's will? And then wouldn't God be controlling Joash's actions by making him work out his plan for Syria and the world by causing him to only beat the ground three times? (II Kgs 13:15-19)
Why would God say they might turn back from their evil deeds, when God is omniscient and already knew since forever that they would not turn back? (Jer 26:3, 7:27, pattern seen in 7:1-29 — God tells the people to repent [implying that they can repent] [vv 1-7], he accuses them & prophesies their punishment [meaning that they will not repent, as a fact] [vv 8-15], God tells Jeremiah not to even bother praying for the people, b/c He won’t listen [vv 16-20])
How can Paul say that all things work together for the good of those who love God, when he also says that there will be some who will be saved, but only as through fire? The first is an ideal, the second is just passing, describing one who has fallen short of God's standards, so how can it be said that in such a person's life all things worked together for their good? (Rom 8:28)
If Jesus’ hour had not yet come, why did he obey his mother? Then wouldn’t he be breaking God’s plan? (Jn 2:3-11)
I really don’t get what it says in Jos 2:20-22. Basically, God gave two reasons for why he wouldn’t drive out the original inhabitants of the land for Israel. First, it’s to punish them for leaving him, and second, to test them to see if they would leave him or not. Obviously, this doesn’t make any sense, since he already knew that they had already left him, and without him testing them. Now what’s up with that?
Why would God tell Ezekiel to use human dung rather than cow dung if he knew that he would allow Ezekiel to use the cow dung after he asked him? OR, to flip the question, why would God listen to Ezekiel if what he wanted was for him to use human dung? (Ezk 4:12-15)
Jesus often did things purposely to fulfill prophecy, but does this mean that the prophets who came before Jesus were prophesying things that wouldn’t have happened had Jesus not intentionally fulfilled them? I had always thought of prophecies as Greek oracles: they happen without you trying to fulfill them, often without you even knowing it, and no matter what you do to avoid their fulfillment. (Mt 2:23, 4:13-14, Jn 18:7-9, 19:28)
Ezk 6:9-10 vs Rv 9:20-21 Why is it that sometimes people repent and sometimes they don’t?