The Creation of the Canon
Why did God want four gospels to be written, rather than just one? Why are many biblical accounts repeated?
How come the Old Testament mentions nothing of heaven and hell, but the New Testament mentions them all the time?
Sometimes the bible quotes “the scriptures”, but these quotations are no where to be found in the OT. So what are these scriptures and why are they not in the canon? (Mt 2:23, Jas 4:5)
Why did Jude include a lot of religious references in his letter that didn’t come from the canonical Jewish scriptures? How then did those who canonized the Christian scriptures know that his message was true and why did they include it in the New Testament? (Jude 9, 14) How did Jude get his information about Michael’s argument with Satan over Moses’ body? (Jude 9) & Enoch’s prophecy (14-15)?
So there's a significant (even theologically significant) difference between the Hebrew Am 9:11-12 and the Septuagint (see ESV note) which James quoted in Acts 15:16-17. Besides this, either a)James shouldn't have been misquoting the bible/Septuagint, b)the church shouldn't have adopted such a bad translation as their bible or c)Luke shouldn't have been misquoting either 1)James, 2)the bible or 3)the Septuagint.
So many of the verses quoted from the OT in the NT are very imprecise. (Acts 13:41 for example, cite from Hab 1:5)
Jn 7:38 How can this be said to be scripture when it's not? And especially coming from Jesus?! Or does this mean we're missing something from scripture?
It doesn’t say in Genesis that Abraham thought God would raise Isaac from the dead. How does the author of Hebrews draw this conclusion? (Heb 11:17-19, Gn 22:1-19)
It seems that either Jude or Peter "plagiarized" off the other. (I'm not saying this is bad, but I wonder why one of them would do this.) (cf Jd 3-13 and II Pt 2:1-17)
How could God use Solomon to write part of the bible when he was so far gone (having become an idolator)?
How come the Old Testament mentions nothing of heaven and hell, but the New Testament mentions them all the time?
Sometimes the bible quotes “the scriptures”, but these quotations are no where to be found in the OT. So what are these scriptures and why are they not in the canon? (Mt 2:23, Jas 4:5)
Why did Jude include a lot of religious references in his letter that didn’t come from the canonical Jewish scriptures? How then did those who canonized the Christian scriptures know that his message was true and why did they include it in the New Testament? (Jude 9, 14) How did Jude get his information about Michael’s argument with Satan over Moses’ body? (Jude 9) & Enoch’s prophecy (14-15)?
So there's a significant (even theologically significant) difference between the Hebrew Am 9:11-12 and the Septuagint (see ESV note) which James quoted in Acts 15:16-17. Besides this, either a)James shouldn't have been misquoting the bible/Septuagint, b)the church shouldn't have adopted such a bad translation as their bible or c)Luke shouldn't have been misquoting either 1)James, 2)the bible or 3)the Septuagint.
So many of the verses quoted from the OT in the NT are very imprecise. (Acts 13:41 for example, cite from Hab 1:5)
Jn 7:38 How can this be said to be scripture when it's not? And especially coming from Jesus?! Or does this mean we're missing something from scripture?
It doesn’t say in Genesis that Abraham thought God would raise Isaac from the dead. How does the author of Hebrews draw this conclusion? (Heb 11:17-19, Gn 22:1-19)
It seems that either Jude or Peter "plagiarized" off the other. (I'm not saying this is bad, but I wonder why one of them would do this.) (cf Jd 3-13 and II Pt 2:1-17)
How could God use Solomon to write part of the bible when he was so far gone (having become an idolator)?
