False Reasoning
Isn’t Jesus’ counterargument against the Pharisees’ accusation that he was of the devil invalid, seeing that it is
possible for one to cast out demons and heal in the name of the Lord,
and yet still be a child of the darkness? And wouldn’t he be
contradicting himself? (Mk 3:22-27, Mt 7:22-23)
Why did Paul say that the promise was to Abraham’s offspring, that is, one person? This is obviously ridiculous. I mean, I get the point, but it’s still a ridiculous argument. (Gal 3:16)
The writer of Hebrews is stretching it here -- David wasn't talking about a rest available during his time or thereafter, but during the 40 years in the wilderness. (4:8)
What’s the purpose of speaking in tongues if nobody understands anyway except God? This sounds like a total waste to me. (I Cor 14:9, 14, 19)
I don't even know how speaking in tongues is edifying to the one who speaks in tongues because they don't even understand, and I don't see why God would have somebody waste their time like that. Why do it in another language? (I Cor 14:14)
Can’t the genuine be recognized without imposters? Where does Paul get his logic? (I Cor 11:18-19)
Why did Paul say that the promise was to Abraham’s offspring, that is, one person? This is obviously ridiculous. I mean, I get the point, but it’s still a ridiculous argument. (Gal 3:16)
The writer of Hebrews is stretching it here -- David wasn't talking about a rest available during his time or thereafter, but during the 40 years in the wilderness. (4:8)
What’s the purpose of speaking in tongues if nobody understands anyway except God? This sounds like a total waste to me. (I Cor 14:9, 14, 19)
I don't even know how speaking in tongues is edifying to the one who speaks in tongues because they don't even understand, and I don't see why God would have somebody waste their time like that. Why do it in another language? (I Cor 14:14)
Can’t the genuine be recognized without imposters? Where does Paul get his logic? (I Cor 11:18-19)