Christian Thought: Christian Theology & Philosophy
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Submission

Picture
'... an angel of the Lord appeared to Joseph in a dream and said, “Rise, take the child and his mother, and flee to Egypt, and remain there until I tell you, for Herod is about to search for the child, to destroy him.”' (Mt 2:13) Notice that the angel gives instructions to Joseph, not Mary.
Is Christianity a misogynist religion? Why is it that wives must submit to their husbands? What does this mean anyway? I mean, what does this look like in real life? How far does it go? What if you're having issues between your husband (he is in the wrong and being uncooperative about it) and he wants to have sex (a lot of men can have sex with their wives even though they're angry at her; not so with women). Do you still have to have sex? A lot of women would feel like they were being raped. (Eph 5:22)

Why did Paul say that women must be under the authority of men just because Eve was the first to sin and became a transgressor? What does any woman have to do with Eve? Why is this important at all? Also, what’s the big deal about man being created first? Many women have been created before a great many men, and yet are these men above them? (I Tm 2:12-14, I Cor 11:3, 7-10)


Why would covering your head be a symbol of being under authority?

I don't like the way Gn 6:2, 4 says men are "the sons of God" but women are "the daughters of man". This sets people up for hierarchical thinking, namely, that men are a level closer to God, women a level farther away with men intervening. (see also question about the Nephilim and I Cor 11:7)

Why did a woman under authority have no right to keep her own vows? Why did she need permission? And it bothers me that even a young man or boy could vow whatever the heck he wanted, but a married old woman couldn't! (Nm 30:3-16) (see also Theology of the Sexes) Another thing that bothers me -- why did a father have a right over his daughter, but not his son? And why didn't a mother have a right over her son? 


Why did Sarah call her husband her lord? It kind of bothers me when I think about it. (Gn 18:12, I Pt 3:5-6)

Why are women taught to be submissive to their husbands, when everyone knows it’s actually (supposed to be) the other way around? What I mean is, the husband has to listen to the wife or else he’ll get in trouble. I have no idea why he can even be put in the position of “being in trouble”, but nature is it at work to make it so.
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How is a wife's submission to her husband different from a child's to it's parents?

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