Christian Thought: Christian Theology & Philosophy
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Theology of the Sexes (see also Submission)

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What does it mean when the Bible says Your desire shall be for your husband, and he shall rule over you? (Gn 3:16)

Is it for or against? This could totally change the meaning of the curse! (Gn 3:16 & ESV note)

What’s the parallel between “Your desire shall be for your husband, and he shall rule over you “and “Its desire is for you, but you must rule over it”? (Gn 3:16, 4:7)

Why a helper of all things? Why not a companion, especially considering that what he was suffering was loneliness, not a lack of help? (Gn 2:18)


Why does God curse them according to sex, and not just give a general curse?

What's the point of woman's pain in childbirth? I don't see why a woman should be in pain while giving birth, and unlike the other "curses", seems to be artificially imposed, rather than arising naturally out of the nature of a fallen world.


Why is romantic love based on hierarchy and not equality (that is, sameness of role), the way friendship is?

Why was a divorced woman or widow not under any authority? (Nm 30:9)

How is a head covering a natural symbol or sign that the one with the head covering is under authority? (I Cor 11:4-5)

What does it mean “he shall bear his iniquity”? Why would a husband have to bear his wife’s iniquity and not just his own? (Nm 30:15) Then why would he make her vows null and void, since it would mean sin and punishment for him?

Why were only the men of Gath inflicted with tumors? (I Sm 5:8-9)

What does it mean “capture weak women”? (II Tm 3:8) As misogynistic as the phrase sounds, somehow I think it rings true (that men would not be susceptible to this kind of fraud), but I don’t know in what way or why.


Why do angels never appear as females? Why does God not have a feminine manifestation?
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